Glossary entry (derived from question below)
French term or phrase:
la cour prononce le divorce aux torts exclusifs du mari
English translation:
the court grants a divorce for/due to/through the fault of the husband
French term
la cour prononce le divorce aux torts exclusifs du mari
Dec 17, 2007 23:25: Lauren UK Created KOG entry
Proposed translations
the court grants a divorce for the fault of the husband
This article explains what the procedure is for at-fault divorces and when they become final:
http://www.vos-droits.justice.gouv.fr/index.php?rubrique=100...
http://wyom.state.wy.us/applications/oscn/DeliverDocument.asp?CiteID=25619
http://caselaw.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=ok&vol=/supreme/1942/&invol=7672
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Attorney DC Bar
: Point well taken Lauren: I didn't actually research the translation I put in, since Asker only wanted an explanation, and I couldn't fill in the Answer without writing something in the translation line. But are you sure about 'for the fault of.."?
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Yes, for US law at least... I'm sure someone will come up with a much better suggestion than me - family law isn't my field :)
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TechLawDC
: More idiomatic in USA are: "by reason of the fault of the husband", "due to the fault ...", "through the fault...", "chargeable to the fault...", "by fault...". ("For the fault..." is rarer.)
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Thank you :)
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to the exclusive prejudice of the husband
thanks a lot! is the verdict certain for divorce? |
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MikeGarcia
: Une bonne explication!!!
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thanks Miguel
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BusterK
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thanks
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islander1974
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thanks
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writeaway
: I don't understand what the problem is either-it's basic and clear.
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thanks writeaway. I was only furnishing an explanation though, as requested-- I have not confirmed the wording of the answer.
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TechLawDC
: "Prejudice" is a procedural term of art. Using it here would be unidiomatic because it would introduce unnecessary strong ambiguity.
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What would you say then?
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The divorce has been granted by the court at the (sole) fault of the husband
I think this a a very legalese way of saying it. I would phrase differently than the French, though.
Yes, "issues a divorce decree" is indeed said in the US, but I prefer "grant a divorce."
aux torts exclusifs du mari = due solely to the fault of the husband
I'd use the present perfect tense (has been), and make "divorce" subject of the sentence in English.
I hope this helps .
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=ok&vol=/supreme/1952/&invol=1952OK328
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=ok&vol=/supreme/1952/&invol=1952OK328
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